CIS-CSM ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist - Customer Service Management Exam

Introduction
The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist – Customer Service Management Exam Specification defines the purpose, audience, testing options, exam content coverage, test framework, and prerequisites to become CIS-CSM certified.

Exam Purpose
The Certified Implementation Specialist – Customer Service Management exam certifies that a successful candidate has the skills and essential knowledge to lead and contribute to the configuration, implementation, and maintenance of the ServiceNow CSM application.

Exam Audience
The Certified Implementation Specialist – Customer Service Management exam is available to ServiceNow customers, partners, employees, and others interested in becoming a ServiceNow Customer Service Management Certified Implementation Specialist.

Exam Preparation
Exam questions are based on official ServiceNow training materials, the ServiceNow documentation site, and the ServiceNow developer site. Study materials posted elsewhere online are not official and should not be used to prepare for the examination

Prerequisite ServiceNow Training Path
ServiceNow requires the completion of the following prerequisite training course(s) in preparation for the Certified Implementation Specialist – Customer Service Management exam. Information provided in the following ServiceNow training course(s) contain source material for the exam.
• ServiceNow Fundamentals
• SIM Fundamentals
• ServiceNow Platform Implementation
• Customer Service Management Fundamentals
• Customer Service Management Implementation - *Upon completion, the candidate will be eligible to collect a voucher for the Certified Implementation Specialist – Customer Service Management exam.

Recommended Knowledge & Education
ServiceNow recommends completion of the following Training Course(s) and Certification(s) in preparation for the exam.
• Implementer Learning Path
• Communities Implementation
• CSM with Service Management for BPC
• Customer Service Management with Service Management for Implementers
• Agent Workspace Fundamentals
• Advanced Work Assignment
• Predictive Intelligence Fundamentals
• Performance Analytics Essentials
• Performance Analytics Fundamentals
• Virtual Agent Overview
• Service Portal Fundamentals

Additional Resources
In addition to the above, the candidate may find the following additional resources valuable in preparation for the exam.
• Documentation and Release Notes

Additional Recommended Experience
• Six months field experience participating in ServiceNow CSM deployment projects or maintaining CSM application suite in ServiceNow instances
• Practical knowledge about Customer Services Processes and knowledge of Case workflows
• General familiarity with industry terminology, acronyms, and initialisms

Exam Scope
Exam content is divided into Learning Domains that correspond to key topics and activities typically encountered during ServiceNow implementations. In each Learning Domain, specific learning objectives have been identified and are tested in the exam.
The following table shows the learning domains, weightings, and sub-skills measured by this exam and the percentage of questions represented in each domain. The listed sub-skills should NOT be considered an all-inclusive list of exam content.

1 Engagement Methodology and Project Planning
• Project Phases
• Working with Clients
• Team Responsibilities

2 Customer Service Management System Setup and Configuration
• Overview of CSM Application
• CSM in ServiceNow
• CSM Setup

3 Customer Service Management Integration
• Integration Capabilities
• Integration with 3rd Party Systems
• Migration of Historical Case Records

4 CSM Portal, Knowledge Management, Service Catalog, Communities and Performance Analytics
• CSM Portal
• Knowledge Management
• Service Catalog
• Communities and Performance Analytics

Exam Registration
Each candidate must register for the exam via the ServiceNow Webassessor website using a voucher obtained by completing the Customer Service Management Implementation training prerequisite. The voucher code obtained from the prerequisite training path is nontransferable and provides the candidate eligibility to sit for the Certified Implementation Specialist – Customer Service Management exam only.
During the registration process, each test taker has the option of taking the exam at an Authorized Testing Center or as an online-proctored exam. In both testing venues, the Certified Implementation Specialist exam is done through a consistent, friendly, user interface customized for ServiceNow tests.

The Kryterion testing network is worldwide and all locations offer a secure, comfortable testing environment. Candidates register for the exam at a specific date and time so there is no waiting and a seat is reserved in the testing center.

Each candidate can also choose to take the exam as an online-proctored exam. This testing environment allows a candidate to take the test on his or her own system provided that certain requirements are met.
NOTE: A special accommodation version of the exam is available. Contact certification@servicenow.com for more information. Depending on the accommodation, there may be a 30-day lead time before testing.

Exam Structure
The exam consists of approximately (60) questions. For each question on the examination, there are multiple possible responses. The person taking the exam reviews the response options and selects the most correct answer to the question.

Multiple Choice (single answer)
For each multiple-choice question on the exam, there are at least four possible responses. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects the one response most accurately answers the question.

Multiple Select (select all that apply)
For each multiple-select question on the exam, there are at least four possible responses. The question will state how many responses should be selected. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects ALL responses that accurately answer the question. Multiple-select questions have two or more correct responses.

Exam Results
After completing and submitting the exam, a pass or fail result is immediately calculated and displayed to the candidate. More detailed results are not provided to the candidate.

QUESTION 1
Agents and managers cannot create knowledge articles from Community questions.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Information about a customer’s service contract is found in Knowledge.

A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
From what places in SN can an agent create a case? (Choose three.)

A. Customer Service Application
B. Contact
C. Account
D. Chat

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 4
What are the conditions that matching rules are based on? (Choose two.)

A. Agent resources best suited to work on a case
B. Specific routing rules
C. Filters set up in advanced work assignment
D. Specific case attributes

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Matching rules enhance assignment capability by ____________________.

A. Matching best agent by availability
B. Providing dynamic matching of cases to groups or individuals
C. Determining if account is a customer or partner
D. Matching best agent by skill

Correct Answer: A

 

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Exam 70-516 TS: Accessing Data with Microsoft .NET Framework 4

Published: September 17, 2012
Languages: English
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Windows Server 2012
Credit toward certification: Microsoft Certified Technology Specialist (MCTS)

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.

If you have other questions or feedback about Microsoft Certification exams or about the certification program, registration, or promotions, please contact your Regional Service Center.

Model data (20%)
Map entities and relationships by using the Entity Data Model
Use the Visual Designer, build an Entity Data Model from an existing database, manage complex entity mappings in EDMX, edit EDM XML, map to stored procedures, create user-defined associations between entities, generate classes with inheritance and map them to tables
This objective does not include: using MetadataWorkspace
Map entities and relationships by using LINQ to SQL
Use the Visual Designer, build a LINQ to SQL model from an existing database, map to stored procedures
Create and customize entity objects
Configure changes to an Entity Framework entity, use the ADO.NET EntityObject Generator (T4), extending, self-tracking entities, snapshot change tracking, ObjectStateManager, partial classes, partial methods in the Entity Framework
Connect a POCO model to the Entity Framework
Implement the Entity Framework with persistence ignorance, user-created POCO entities
This objective does not include: use the POCO templates
Create the database from the Entity Framework model
Customize the Data Definition Language (DDL) (templates) generation process, generate scripts for a database, Entity Data Model tools
Create model-defined functions
Edit the Conceptual Schema Definition Language (CSDL), enable model-defined functions by using the EdmFunction attribute, complex types

Manage connections and context (18%)
Configure connection strings and providers
Manage connection strings, including Entity Framework connection strings; use the Configuration Manager; correctly address the Microsoft SQL Server instance; implement connection pooling; manage User Instance and AttachDBfilename; switch providers; implement multiple active result sets (MARS)
This objective does not include: use the ConnectionStringBuilder, Oracle data provider, create and use a custom provider, use third-party providers
Create and manage a data connection
Connect to a data source, close connections, maintain the life cycle of a connection
Secure a connection
Encrypt and decrypt connection strings, use Security Support Provider Interface (SSPI) or SQL Server authentication, read-only versus read/write connections
This objective does not include: Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
Manage the DataContext and ObjectContext
Manage the life cycle of DataContext and ObjectContext, extend the DataContext and ObjectContext, support POCO
Implement eager loading
Configure loading strategy by using LazyLoadingEnabled, support lazy loading with POCO, explicitly loading entities
Cache data
DataContext and ObjectContext cache, including identity map; local data cache
This objective does not include: Velocity, SqlCacheDependency
Configure ADO.NET Data Services
Create access rules for entities, configure authorization and authentication, configure HTTP verbs

Query data (22%)
Execute a SQL query
DBCommand, DataReader, DataAdapters, DataSets, manage data retrieval by using stored procedures, use parameters, System.Data.Common namespace classes
Create a LINQ query
Syntax-based and method-based queries, join, filter, sort, group, aggregation, lambda expressions, paging, projection
This objective does not include: compile queries
Create an Entity SQL (ESQL) query
Join, filter, sort, group, aggregation, paging, use functions, query plan caching, return a reference to an entity instance, use parameters with ESQL, functionality related to EntityClient classes
Handle special data types
Query BLOBs, filestream, spatial and table-valued parameters
This objective does not include: implement data types for unstructured data, user-defined types, Common Language Runtime (CLR) types
Query XML
LINQ to XML, XmlReader, XmlDocuments, XPath
This objective does not include: XSLT, XmlWriter
Query data by using WCF.NET Data Services
Implement filtering and entitlement in WCF.NET Data Services, address resources, create a query expression, access payload formats, Data Services interceptors

Manipulate data (22%)
Create, update, or delete data by using SQL statements
Create/Update/Delete (CUD), use DataSets, call stored procedures, use parameters
Create, update, or delete data by using DataContext
CUD, call stored procedures, use parameters
This objective does not include: ObjectTrackingEnabled
Create, update, or delete data by using ObjectContext
CUD, calling stored procedures, using parameters, setting SaveOptions
Manage transactions
System.Transactions, DBTransaction, roll back a transaction, Lightweight Transaction Manager (LTM)
This objective does not include: distributed transactions, multiple updates within a transaction, multiple synchronization of data within an acidic transaction
Create disconnected objects
Create self-tracking entities in the Entity Framework, attach objects, DataSets, table adapters

Develop and deploy reliable applications (18%)
Monitor and collect performance data
Log generated SQL (ToTraceString), collect response times, implement performance counters, implement logging, implement instrumentation
Handle exceptions
Resolve data concurrency issues (handle OptimisticConcurrency exception, Refresh method), handle errors, transaction exceptions, connection exceptions, timeout exceptions, handle an exception from the Entity Framework disconnected object, security exceptions
Protect data
Encryption, digital signature, hashing, salting, least privilege
Synchronize data
Online/offline Entity Framework, synchronization services, save locally
Deploy ADO.NET components
Package and publish from Visual Studio, deploy an ADO.NET Services application, package and deploy Entity Framework metadata
This objective does not include: configure IIS, MSDeploy, MSBuild
QUESTION 1
You are developing a Microsoft .NET Framework 4 application.
You need to collect performance data to the event log after the application is deployed to the production environment.
Which two components should you include in the project? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. A trace listener
B. A debug listener
C. Debug.Asset() statements
D. Debug.WriteLine() statements
E. Trace.WriteLine() statements
Answer: B,C
Explanation: Tracing is a way for you to monitor the execution of your application while it is running.
Example:
For example, suppose you set up two listeners: a TextWriterTraceListener and an EventLogTraceListener. Each listener receives the same message. The TextWriterTraceListener would direct its output to a stream, and the EventLogTraceListener would direct its output to an event log.
The following example shows how to send output to the Listeners collection. C#VB
// Use this example when debugging. System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("Error in Widget 42");
// Use this example when tracing. System.Diagnostics.Trace.WriteLine("Error in Widget 42");

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QUESTION 2
You use Microsoft Visual Studio 2010 and Microsoft .NET Framework 4 to create an
application. The application uses the ADO.NET Entity Framework to model entities.
You need to create a database from your model.
What should you do?

A. Run the edmgen.exe tool in FullGeneration mode.
B. Run the edmgen.exe tool in FromSSDLGeneration mode.
C. Use the Update Model Wizard in Visual Studio.
D. Use the Generate Database Wizard in Visual Studio. Run the resulting script against a Microsoft SQL Server database.
Answer: D
Explanation:
To update the database, right-click the Entity Framework designer surface and choose Generate Database From Model.
The Generate Database Wizard produces a SQL script file that you can edit and execute.

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QUESTION 3
You use Microsoft Visual Studio 2010 and Microsoft .NET Framework 4 to develop an application that uses the Entity Framework. The application has an entity model that includes SalesTerritory and SalesPerson entities as shown in the following diagram.


You need to calculate the total bonus for all sales people in each sales territory.
Which code segment should you use?
A. from person in model.SalesPersons group person by person.SalesTerritory into territoriesByPerson
select new
{
SalesTerritory = territoriesByPerson.Key,
TotalBonus = territoriesByPerson.Sum(person => person.Bonus) };
B. from territory in model.SalesTerritories group territory by territory.SalesPersons into personByterritories
select new
{
SalesTerritory = personByterritories.Key,
TotalBonus = personByterritories.Key.Sum(person => person.Bonus) };
C. model.SalesPersons
.GroupBy(person => person.SalesTerritory)
.SelectMany(group => group.Key.SalesPersons)
.Sum(person => person.Bonus); D. model.SalesTerritories
.GroupBy(territory => territory.SalesPersons)
.SelectMany(group => group.Key)
.Sum(person => person.Bonus);
Answer: A

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QUESTION 4
You use Microsoft Visual Studio 2010 and Microsoft .NET Framework 4 to create an application. The application connects to a Microsoft SQL Server database. The application uses DataContexts to query the database.
The application meets the following requirements:
Stores customer data offline.
Allows users to update customer records while they are disconnected from the server.
Enables offline changes to be submitted back to the SQL Server by using the DataContext object.
You need to ensure that the application can detect all conflicts that occur between the offline customer information submitted to the SQL Server and the server version.
You also need to ensure that you can roll back local changes.
What should you do?

A. Add a try/catch statement around calls to the SubmitChanges method of the DataContext object and catch ChangeConflictExceptions.
B. Add a try/catch statement around calls to the SubmitChanges method of the DataContext object and catch SqlExceptions.
C. Override the Update operation of the DataContext object. Call the ExecuteDynamicUpdate method to generate the update SQL.
D. Call the SubmitChanges method of the DataContext object.
Pass System.Data.Linq.ConflictMode.ContinueOnConflict to the method.
Answer: D
Explanation:
FailOnFirstConflict Specifies that attempts to update the database should stop immediately when the first concurrency conflict error is detected.
ContinueOnConflict Specifies that all updates to the database should be tried, and that concurrency conflicts should be accumulated and returned at the end of the process. ExecuteDynamicUpdate() Method Called inside update override methods to redelegate to LINQ to SQL the task of generating and executing dynamic SQL for update operations. ConflictMode Enumeration
(http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb345922.aspx) DataContext.ExecuteDynamicUpdate Method (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.data.linq.datacontext.executedynamicupdate.aspx)

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QUESTION 5
You use Microsoft Visual Studio 2010 and Microsoft .NET Framework 4 to create an
application. The application connects to a Microsoft SQL Server database. You use the ADO.NET Entity Framework to model entities.
You need to add a new type to your model that organizes scalar values within an entity.
You also need to map stored procedures for managing instances of the type.
What should you do?

A. Add the stored procedures in the SSDL file along with a Function attribute. Define a complex type in the CSDL file.
Map the stored procedure in the MSL file with a ModificationFunctionElement.
B. Add the stored procedures in the SSDL file along with a Function attribute. Define a complex type in the CSDL file.
Map the stored procedure in the MSL file with an AssociationEnd element.
C. Use the edmx designer to import the stored procedures.
Derive an entity class from the existing entity as a complex type.
Map the stored procedure in the MSL file with an AssociationEnd element. D. Add the stored procedures in the SSDL file along with a Function attribute. Derive an entity class from the existing entity as a complex type.
Map the stored procedure in the MSL file with a ModificationFunctionElement.
Answer: A
Explanation:
EndProperty Element (MSL) (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb399578.aspx) AssosiationEnd Attribute (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc716774.aspx)

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600-460 UCCEIS Implementing and Supporting Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise

600-460 UCCEIS Implementing and Supporting Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise

Exam Number 600-460 UCCEIS
Associated Certifications Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Specialist
Duration 75 minutes (65-75 questions)
Available Languages English

This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of installing and deploying Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise (Cisco Unified CCE) solutions. Cisco Unified CCE is part of the Cisco Unified Communications application suite, which delivers intelligent call routing, network-to-desktop computer telephony integration (CTI), and multichannel contact management to contact center agents over an IP network. Skills assessed include install, setup, configure, and troubleshoot the solution.



The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed. The following topics are general guidelines for the content that is likely to be included on the practical exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the following guidelines may change at any time without notice.

14% 1.0 Describe the Fault Tolerant Characteristics of the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Solution including Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal, Cisco Unified Intelligence Center, and Cisco Finesse

1.1 Explain the fault-tolerant integration of Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal in the Cisco Unified CCE solution

1.2 Explain what Cisco Unified ICM router key is

1.3 Describe the steps required for Cisco Finesse configuration updates

1.4 Describe the internal communications between Cisco Unified ICM components

1.5 Describe the requirements for Cisco Unified ICM heartbeats

1.6 Describe the synchronization between Cisco Unified ICM components

1.7 Describe the considerations for upgrading one or more components of the Cisco Unified CCE solution

1.8 Describe the impact of a network failure in the Cisco Unified CCE solution

1.9 Explain how the Cisco (Unified ICM) call routing script can detect and route around failed system components of the Cisco Unified CCE solution

21% 2.0 Describe the Installation Process for ICM Components of the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Solution including Cisco Unified CVP, Cisco Unified IC, and Cisco Finesse

2.1 Describe the configuration elements for Cisco Unified CVP that is required in Unified ICM

2.2 Describe the install and setup for SIP dialer and voice gateways

2.3 Describe the Cisco Unified Intelligence Center requirements using virtualization environment

2.4 Explain the configuration roles for agent teams

2.5 Describe the install and configuration requirements for Cisco Finesse

2.6 Describe the configuration limits for Packaged CCE

2.7 Describe the configuration requirements for voice gateway used in Packed CCE deployment

2.8 Explain the required configuration to use significant digits

2.9 Explain the required software to install and setup VMware Hypervisor

2.10 Describe the configuration options required to enable the Outbound option in the Cisco Unified ICM

2.11 Describe the role of the Cisco Unified ICM Domain Manager tool

2.12 Describe the Unified ICM routing clients

18% 3.0 Describe the Call Flow Scripting Process in Cisco Unified ICM and Cisco Unified CVP for the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Solution

3.1 Describe the precision queue scripting consideration

3.2 Describe the Extended Call Context variables with Cisco Unified CVP

3.3 Describe the functionality limitation imposed when you use Cisco Unified CVP MicroApp

3.4 Describe the elements needed to trigger Cisco Unified ICM script

3.5 Describe configuration elements to make VXML gateway part of Cisco Unified CVP deployment

3.6 Describe configuration elements needed for post call survey

3.7 Describe outbound scripting considerations

3.8 Describe the impact that Cisco Unified ICM scripting has on reporting in the Cisco Unified CCE solution

3.9 Describe configuration elements needed for sig digits

3.10 Explain the options available in Cisco Unified ICM call routing scripts to access external databases for call routing

3.11 Describe how MicroApp can capture DTMF

16% 4.0 Understanding Cisco Unified CCE Tools Including Cisco Unified ICM, Cisco Unified CVP, Cisco Unified IC, and Cisco Finesse Tools

4.1 Describe the available tools in the Cisco Unified CCE solution to support Cisco Unified Intelligent Contact Management

4.2 Describe the available tools in the Cisco Unified CCE solution to support the Cisco Unified Communications Manager

4.3 Describe the available tools in the Cisco Unified CCE solution to support the Cisco Unified CVP Customer Response Solutions

4.4 Describe the available tools in the Cisco Unified CCE solution to support Cisco Finesse

4.5 Describe the available tools in the Cisco Unified CCE solution to support the Cisco Unified Intelligence Center

11% 5.0 Identify Cisco Unified ICM, Cisco Unified CVP, and Cisco Finesse

5.1 Identify issues in Cisco Unified CVP log and trace files

5.2 Identify issues in Cisco Unified ICM and CTI log and trace files

5.3 Identify issues in Cisco Unified Enterprise outbound option log and trace files

5.4 Identify issues in Cisco Finesse log and trace files

5.5 Identify issues in Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise security

7% 6.0 Understanding Cisco Unified CCE Agent Supervision Issues and Considerations

6.1 Identify Ring No Answer issues and considerations

6.2 Identify Cisco Finesse considerations to avoid agent issues

6.3 Understanding Cisco Finesse Administration to avoid agent issues

6.4 Identify issues with agents not being able to log into Cisco Unified CCE

6.5 Identify issues with agent call behavior

13% 7.0 Understanding Cisco Unified CCE Solution Call Flow Issues and Considerations

7.1 Identify call flow issues and considerations for the Cisco Unified ICM call routing scripts for inbound and outbound calls

7.2 Identify call flow issues for agent transfers in the Cisco Unified CCE solution

7.3 Identify call flow issues and considerations for the Cisco Unified CVP scripts

7.4 Identify Cisco Unified CVP configuration elements and their purpose

7.5 Identify call flow issues and considerations for the VXML gateways

7.6 Identify voice quality issues

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QUESTION 1
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise with Cisco Unified CVP, which two statements
about how to increase the Cisco Unified CVP availability are true? (Choose two.)

A. Must have SIP Proxy server to pass messages between the gateways and the Cisco Unified CVP servers.
B. Must have voice gateway TCL scripts to handle conditions where the gateways cannot contact
the Cisco Unified CVP Call Server to direct the call correctly.
C. Add load balancers to load balance .wav file requests across multiple Cisco Unified CVP Media Servers.
D. Dedicate duplexed VRU peripheral gateways for each Cisco Unified CVP call server.
E. For a single data center with centralized deployment, deploy Cisco Unified CVP with N:N redundancy.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:

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QUESTION 2
In the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise solution, which process is responsible for peer-to-peer
synchronization?

A. ccagent
B. mds
C. router
D. opc

Answer: B

Explanation:

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QUESTION 3
What is the semantic meaning of the RouterCallKeyDay variable?

A. It represents a number that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at
midnight it could increment from 151191 to 151192.
B. It represents a string that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at
midnight it could advance from "Monday" to "Tuesday".
C. It represents a number that uniquely identifies the call during the day it was taken. For example:
at midnight it would reset to zero.
D. It represents a sequence number used for ordering rows for the same call.
E. It represents a string that corresponds to a Globally Unique Call Identifier.

Answer: A

Explanation:

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QUESTION 4
Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise is deployed with Cisco Finesse and you make changes to
CTI Server, Contact Center Enterprise Administration, or cluster settings. Which service must be
restarted for changes to take effect?

A. Cluster Manager
B. System Application Agent
C. Cisco DB
D. Cisco Tomcat
E. Cisco Dirsync

Answer: D

Explanation:

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QUESTION 5
Within Cisco Unified ICM, which process handles communication between the router and
peripheral gateway components?

A. dbagent
B. opcs
C. ccagent
D. mds

Answer: C

Explanation:

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500-280 SSFSNORT Securing Cisco Networks with Open Source Snort (SSFSNORT) for Validating Knowledge

QUESTION 1
Which protocol operates below the network layer?

A. UDP
B. ICMP
C. ARP
D. DNS

Answer: C

Explanation:

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QUESTION 2
Which area is created between screening devices in an egress/ingress path for housing web, mail,
or DNS servers?

A. EMZ
B. DMZ
C. harbor
D. inlet

Answer: B

Explanation:

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QUESTION 3
What does protocol normalization do?

A. compares evaluated packets to normal, daily network-traffic patterns
B. removes any protocol-induced or protocol-allowable ambiguities
C. compares a packet to related traffic from the same session, to determine whether the packet is
out of sequence
D. removes application layer data, whether or not it carries protocol-induced anomalies, so that
packet headers can be inspected more accurately for signs of abuse

Answer: B

Explanation:

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QUESTION 4
On which protocol does Snort focus to decode, process, and alert on suspicious network traffic?

A. Apple talk
B. TCP/IP
C. IPX/SPX
D. ICMP

Answer: B

Explanation:

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QUESTION 5
Which technique can an intruder use to try to evade detection by a Snort sensor?

A. exceed the maximum number of fragments that a sensor can evaluate
B. split the malicious payload over several fragments to mask the attack signature
C. disable a sensor by exceeding the number of packets that it can fragment before forwarding
D. send more packet fragments than the destination host can reassemble, to disable the host
without regard to any intrusion-detection devices that might be on the network

Answer: B

Explanation:

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300-080 CTCOLLAB Troubleshooting Cisco IP Telephony & Video v1.0

Exam Number 300-080 CTCOLLAB
Associated Certifications CCNP Collaboration
Duration 75 Minutes (55 - 65 questions)
Available Languages English
This exam assesses learner's knowledge and skills that are required to troubleshoot a Cisco Unified Collaboration solution. The assessment covers troubleshooting methodology, triage, resources, and tools. The exam also covers Cisco Unified Communications Manager, Cisco Video Communication Server (VCS) Control, the Cisco Expressway Series, Cisco TelePresence Management Suite, and media resources, including voice and video conferences.
The following course is the recommended training for this exam.
Troubleshooting Cisco IP Telephony & Video (CTCOLLAB)
Cisco Technology Training for Collaboration E-Learning
Courses listed are offered by Cisco Learning Partners-the only authorized source for Cisco IT training delivered exclusively by Certified Cisco Instructors. Check the List of Learning Partners for a Cisco Learning Partner nearest you.

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

Assuming that the two Cisco SAF Forwarders are adjacent to each other and that no SAF clients have been configured, which statement is true?
A. The Cisco SAF Forwarders will not establish a neighbor relationship because the service-family external-client configuration is missing.
B. The Cisco SAF Forwarders will not establish a neighbor relationship because the eigrp label CUCME should be replaced with SAF.
C. The Cisco SAF Forwarders will not establish a neighbor relationship because the service-family external-client configuration is missing as well as the static neighbor configurations.
D. The Cisco SAF Forwarders will establish a neighbor relationship. No further configuration is required.
E. Cisco SAF Forwarders will not establish a neighbor relationship until the SAF clients are configured and registered to the Cisco SAF Forwarders.
Answer: D

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QUESTION 2
To maintain proper database integrity, what is the recommended maximum round-trip delay between multiple Cisco VCS appliances in a cluster?
A. 10 ms
B. 15 ms
C. 25 ms
D. 30 ms
E. 50 ms
F. 80 ms
Answer: D

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QUESTION 3
To achieve 720p (HD) quality at 30 frames per second on an endpoint that is running TC software, what is the minimum configured call rate?
A. 512 kbps
B. 1152 kbps
C. 768 kbps
D. 2560 kbps
Answer: B

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QUESTION 4
When parsing trace output after the call routing decision and path selection have been made, which two records can be found in the CCM|RouteList? (Choose two.)
A. PretransfromDigitString
B. CallingPartyNumber
C. PretransformCallingPartyNumber
D. RouteListName
E. findLocalDevice
F. RouteListCdrc :
Answer: D,F

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QUESTION 5
When a user attempts to log out from Cisco Extension Mobility service by pressing the services button and selecting the Cisco Extension Mobility service, the user is not able to log out. What is causing this issue?
A. The Cisco Extension Mobility service has not been configured on the phone.
B. The user device profile is not subscribed to the Cisco Extension Mobility service.
C. The CTI service is not running.
D. The logout URL that is defined for the Cisco Extension Mobility service is incorrect or does not exist under the IP Phone Services configuration.
Answer: B

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300-075 CIPTV2 Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 v1.0

Exam Number 300-075 CIPTV2
Associated Certifications CCNP Collaboration
Duration 75 Minutes (50 - 60 questions)
Available Languages English

This exam tests candidates seeking CCNP Collaboration on their ability for implementing a Cisco Unified Collaboration solution in a multisite environment. It covers Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) dialing, globalized call routing, Intercluster Lookup Service and Global Dial Plan Replication, Cisco Service Advertisement Framework and Call Control Discovery, tail-end hop-off, Cisco Unified Survivable Remote Site Telephony, Enhanced Location Call Admission Control (CAC) and Automated Alternate Routing (AAR), and mobility features such as Device Mobility, Cisco Extension Mobility, and Cisco Unified Mobility. The exam also describes the role of Cisco Video Communication Server (VCS) Control and the Cisco Expressway Series and how they interact with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

The following course is the recommended training for this exam.
Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 (CIPTV2)
Cisco Technology Training for Collaboration E-Learning

Courses listed are offered by Cisco Learning Partners-the only authorized source for Cisco IT training delivered exclusively by Certified Cisco Instructors. Check the List of Learning Partners for a Cisco Learning Partner nearest you.

Exam Description
The Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 (CIPTV2) v1.0 exam is a 75 minute 55-65 question assessment that tests candidates seeking CCNP Collaboration on their ability for implementing a Cisco Unified Collaboration solution in a multisite environment. It covers Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) dialing, globalized call routing, Intercluster Lookup Service and Global Dial Plan Replication, Cisco Service Advertisement Framework and Call Control Discovery, tail-end hop-off, Cisco Unified Survivable Remote Site Telephony, Enhanced Location Call Admission Control (CAC) and Automated Alternate Routing (AAR), and mobility features such as Device Mobility, Cisco Extension Mobility, and Cisco Unified Mobility. The exam also describes the role of Cisco Video Communication Server (VCS) Control and the Cisco Expressway Series and how they interact with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

1.0 VCS Control 17%
1.1 Configure registration of devices
1.2 Explore the fundamentals of subzones
1.3 Describe zone plans for VCS
1.4 Describe and configure traversal zones
1.5 Describe the benefits and configuration of transforms and create call policies
1.6 Explore VCS searches for endpoints
1.7 Integrating LDAP
1.8 Explain DNS and SRV records and document requirements for SRV records
1.9 Describe how clustering and replication works and configure a cluster
1.10 Configure interworking with VCS
1.11 Configure H.323 (including gatekeeper) and SIP
1.12 Configure trunking

2.0 Collaboration Edge (VCS Expressway) 12%
2.1 Identify and configure the requirements when deploying a collaboration edge
2.2 Establish a relationship between C/Expressway E and CUCM
2.3 Document and produce requirements for firewall and NAT configuration
2.4 Describe and implement privacy and security controls for external devices and calls
2.5 Describe elements in a traversal call (H.460 and Assent)

3.0 Configure CUCM Video Service Parameters 9%
3.1 Configure DSCP
3.2 Configuring clusterwide parameters system QoS

4.0 Describe and Implement Centralized Call Processing Redundancy 10%
4.1 Describe device fail over
4.2 Configure call survivability
4.3 Configure Cisco Unified Survivable Remote Site Telephony operation
4.4 Verify redundancy operations

5.0 Describe and Configure a Multi-site Dial Plan for Cisco Unified Communications Manager 17%
5.1 Describe the issues with multi-site dial plans
5.2 Describe the differences between the various gateways and trunk types supported by

Cisco Unified Communication Manager
5.3 Implement trunks to VCS
5.4 Describe globalized call routing based on URI dial plans and ILS
5.5 Implement a numbering plan for multi-site topologies

6.0 Implement Call Control Discovery/ILS 14%
6.1 Configure Service Advertisement Framework Forwarder
6.2 Configure Service Advertisement Framework Client Control
6.3 Configure Service Advertisement Framework Call Control Discovery
6.4 Configure URI calling
6.5 Configure ILS network
6.6 Configure Global Dial Plan Replication

7.0 Implement Video Mobility Features 9%
7.1 Configure extension mobility, and device mobility
7.2 Configure unified mobility (including video)

8.0 Implement Bandwidth Management and Call Admission Control on CUCM 12%
8.1 Configure regions
8.2 Implement transcoders and MTPs
8.3 Configure locations CAC and Enhanced CAC
8.4 Correlate events based on traces, logs, debugs and output of monitoring tools
8.5 Parse and interpret traces, logs, debugs and output of monitoring tools

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QUESTION 1
When multiple Cisco Extension Mobility profiles exist, which actions take place when a user tries to log in to Cisco Extension Mobility?

A. The login will fail because only a single Cisco Extension Mobility profile is allowed.
B. The user must select the desired profile.
C. The user must login to both profiles in the order they are presented.
D. The user may login to both profiles in any order.
E. Login will only be allowed to multiple profiles if the service parameter Allow Multiple Logins is enabled.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: A, C, D, E
Users access Cisco Extension Mobility by pressing the Services or Applications button on a Cisco Unified IP Phone and then entering login information in the form of a Cisco Unified Communications Manager UserID and a Personal Identification Number (PIN). If a user has more than one user device profile, a prompt displays on the phone and asks the user to choose a device profile for use with Cisco Extension Mobility.
Link: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/8_6_1/ccmfeat/fsem.html

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QUESTION 2
Which ability does the Survivable Remote Site Telephony feature provide?

A. a means to allow the local site to continue to send and receive calls in the event of a WAN failure
B. a means to route calls on-net through other sites during high utilization periods
C. a method that allows for backup calls in the event that your gateway fails
D. the ability to force a call out of a certain trunk when the Cisco Unified Communications Manager is being upgraded

Answer: A

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QUESTION 3
What is the fastest way for an engineer to test the implementation of SRST in a production environment?

A. Shut down the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Servers.
B. Shut down the switch ports connected to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Servers.
C. Add a null route to the publisher Cisco Unified Communications Manager at the remote router. Remove the null route when the operation is verified.
D. Unplug the IP phones from their switch ports.
E. Verification is not needed.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.


The HQ site uses area code 650. The BR1 site uses area code 408. The long distance

A Composite Solution With Just One Click - Certification Guaranteed 3
national code for PSTN dialing is 1. To make a long distance national call, an HQ or BR1 user dials access code 9, followed by 1, and then the 10-digit number.
Both sites use MGCP gateways. AAR must use globalized call routing using a single route pattern. Assume that all outgoing PSTN numbers are localized at the egress gateway as shown in the exhibit.
Which partition should be configured in the AAR CSS applied at the phones?

A. PSTN partition
B. LD partition
C. The HQ AAR CSS must include a partition assigned to route pattern 91408XXXXXXX. The BR1 AAR CSS must include a partition assigned to route pattern 91650XXXXXXX.
D. AAR CSS must contain translation pattern 9.1[2-9]XX[2-9]XXXXXX for each site that must be globalized. Otherwise the called numbers will not be localized at the egress gateway.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.


The HQ Cisco Unified Communications Manager has been configured for end-to-end RSVP. The BR Cisco Unified Communications Manager has been configured for local
RSVP.
RSVP between the locations assigned to the IP phones and SIP trunks at each site are configured with mandatory RSVP. When a call is placed from the IP phone at HQ to the BR phone at the BR site, which statement is true?

A. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager at HQ will fall back to local RSVP and place the call. No RSVP end-to-end will occur.
B. RSVP end-to-end will occur.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager at HQ will use end-to-end RSVP. The BR Cisco Unified Communications Manager will use local RSVP.
D. The call will fail.
E. The call will proceed as a normal call with no RSVP reservation.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: A, B, C
A possible cause is that the same router is being used as the calling and called RSVP agents, and that router is not running the latest IOS version, which supports loopback on RSVP reservation. Make sure that the router is running the latest IOS version.
Link: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/8_6_1/ccmsys/a02rsvp.html #wp1155102

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Exam 70-333 Deploying Enterprise Voice with Skype for Business 2015 (beta)

Published: July 31, 2015
Languages: English
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Skype for Business
Credit toward certification: MCSE

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.

If you have other questions or feedback about Microsoft Certification exams or about the certification program, registration, or promotions, please contact your Regional Service Center.

Plan and design Skype for Business with Enterprise Voice (30-35%)
Design Enterprise Voice topology
Design mediation server collocation or placement, gateways, trunks, voice resiliency, mediation server dependencies, voice usage and traffic, DNS, and phone configuration
Design call routing and Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) connectivity
Design dial plans, routes, including location-based routing, normalization, voice policies, basic emergency dialing and notification, PSTN usage, and trunk configuration; design for call via work; define SIP trunk capacity requirements; design multiple media gateway support, trunk configuration; define outbound translation rules, inbound dial plan; qualify technology options from UCOIP
Design voice applications
Design call park, Response Group, delegation model, Response Group workflows; design private line and vacant number announcements
Design unified messaging (UM)
Design UM dial plans, normalization rules, UM auto-attendant, subscriber access, UM outbound dialing, and UM placement and capacity for on-premises and online
Plan for network readiness and optimization
Assess network requirements including Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS), virtual private network (VPN), multiple MPLS providers including ExpressRoute providers, asymmetric links, point-to-point wireless, internal NAT, TCP vs. UDP, and signaling vs. media traffic; plan for optimal conferencing traffic, capacity, Edge placement, assess QoS readiness including traffic policing and traffic shaping impact on RTC, DSCP, port based, scavenger class, best effort traffic class, and separate/converged networks; estimate network usage; analyze media scenarios for conference, peer-to-peer, PSTN, and capture traces for max jitter, average jitter, peak consecutive packet loss, average packet loss, and one-way network delay
Design network services for Enterprise Voice
Design Location Information Services (LIS) and Call Admission Control (CAC); plan for Media Bypass; design for QoS including port requirements for internal and external services; design and forecast network needs for sizing ExpressRoute
Model and analyze Skype for Business traffic per site
Predict and calculate service needs and growth, compare how different personas impact network requirements, and calibrate usage models based on customer usage and business requirements, including web, audio and video conferencing, PSTN, and peer-to peer calls; adjust business requirements, adjust network components (topology, capacity), and limit traffic volume or modify solution design; calculate traffic volume by using the Skype for Business bandwidth calculator for branch traffic, central site traffic, and remote user traffic
Analyze policies and historical data network usage
Analyze Service Level Agreements (SLAs) on network infrastructure, analyze impact of security policies, including firewalls, VPN tunnels, remote access, Direct Access, NAT, and Private VLANs, and assess appropriateness of current QoS policies for Skype for Business, average usage, peak usage, average drop, and peak packet loss; analyze historical call quality data; analyze bandwidth requirements for Skype for Business Online
Plan and analyze simulation traffic results, and make recommendations
Design site traffic generator endpoint placement/location, design site traffic generator transaction path, and design site traffic generator transaction volume per path; interpret baseline network characteristics and any variations, analyze simulation results in the context of a network (topology, QoS); recommend network reconfigurations, recommend modifications for QoS approach, and explain impact of observed network characteristics, including latency, packet loss, jitter, and bandwidth usage

Deploy and configure Enterprise Voice (30-35%)
Configure network services for Enterprise Voice
Configure Location Information Services (LIS), Call Admission Control (CAC) for voice, Call Admission Control (CAC) for video, DHCP for phone edition, QOS, and media bypass; configure ExpressRoute for Office 365
Configure voice applications
Configure call park, Response Group workflows, Response Group queues, private line, and vacant number announcements, configure delegation; configure and enable PSTN Conferencing with ACP, Cloud PBX, PSTN Calling, Hybrid Voice infrastructure; port phone numbers to Microsoft as the carrier; configure users with cloud phone numbers
Configure call routing
Configure dial plans, routes, and trunks; apply voice policies, PSTN usages, and emergency dialing; call via work
Configure unified messaging (UM) for Skype for Business and Cloud Voicemail
Configure UM dial plans, the normalization rules, UM auto-attendant, subscriber access, and call answering rules; configure DNS records; configure Edge Server for integration with Office 365; manage and assign Hosted Voice Mail policies; enable users for Hosted Voice Mail; create Contact Objects for Hosted Voice Mail; configure Skype for Business Online Enterprise Voice users to have Cloud Voicemail
Configure Enterprise Voice client features
Configure delegation, simultaneous ring, team calling, and group call pickup, shared line appearance, call via work

Manage and troubleshoot Enterprise Voice (30-35%)
Troubleshoot call setup and teardown
Troubleshoot Skype for Business Server and Skype for Business Online internal phone calls (PC to PC), external phone calls (PC to Public Switched Telephone Network [PSTN]), inbound and outbound routing, network configuration, and internal and external clients; call via work
Troubleshoot Enterprise Voice quality issues
Analyze Call Detail Recording/ Quality of Experience (CDR/QOE) logs, analyze call flow by using Snooper, analyze call data quality using call quality methodology (CQM), troubleshoot third-party devices, QOS, and network bandwidth; analyze rate my call results; analyze and troubleshoot issues with Skype for Business Online Enterprise Voice users
Troubleshoot Enterprise Voice configuration
Analyze dial plans (normalization, translation), analyze session management (trunk routing); analyze policies, routes, and usages; troubleshoot external connectivity (gateways, SBA, PBX, SBC, PSTN) and media bypass; call admission control (CAC); call via work; troubleshoot delegation, simultaneous ring, team calling, and group call pickup; number porting
Troubleshoot and analyze Enterprise Voice applications
Troubleshoot call park, Response Groups, unassigned numbers, Exchange voicemail, and LIS and emergency calling implementation
Troubleshoot universal communications (UC) devices and peripherals
Troubleshoot device update issues, device connectivity issues (LPE + 3PIP), PIN authentication issues, peripherals, and VDI plug-in device pairing
Monitor and manage Skype for Business
Monitor call quality dashboard, monitoring server reports, QoE, synthetic transactions, and server health; monitor Rate My Call results

Who should take this exam?
Candidates for this exam are IT consultants and telecommunications consulting professionals who design, plan, deploy, and maintain solutions for unified communications (UC). Candidates should be able to translate business requirements into technical architecture and design for a UC solution. Candidates should have a minimum of two years of experience with Skype for Business technologies and be familiar with supported migration scenarios. Candidates should be proficient in deploying Skype for Business Server and Skype for Business Online solutions for end users, endpoint devices, telephony, audio/video and web conferences, security, and high availability. Candidates should also know how to monitor and troubleshoot Skype for Business using Microsoft tools. In addition, candidates should be proficient with Active Directory Domain Services, data networks, and telecommunications standards and components that support the configuration of Skype for Business. Candidates should be familiar with the requirements for integrating Skype for Business with Microsoft Exchange Server and Office 365.

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Exam 70-383 Recertification for MCSE: SharePoint

Published: January 6, 2016
Languages: English, German, Japanese
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: SharePoint Server 2013
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSE

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.

If you have other questions or feedback about Microsoft Certification exams or about the certification program, registration, or promotions, please contact your Regional Service Center.

Design a SharePoint topology
Design an information architecture
Design inter-site navigational taxonomy; design site columns and content types; design keywords, synonyms, best bets, and managed properties; plan information management policies; plan managed site structures; plan term sets
Design a logical architecture
Plan application pools; plan web applications; plan for software boundaries; plan content databases; plan host-header site collections; plan zones and alternate access mapping
Plan SharePoint Online (Office 365) deployment
Evaluate service offerings; plan service applications; plan hybrid search scenarios; plan site collections; plan customizations and solutions; plan security for SharePoint Online; plan for SharePoint Online admin roles; plan networking services for SharePoint Online

Plan security
Plan and configure authentication
Plan and configure Windows claims authentication; plan and configure identity federation; configure claims providers; configure OAuth authentication; plan and configure for anonymous authentication; configure connections to ACS
Plan and configure platform security
Plan and configure security isolation; plan and configure services lockdown; plan and configure general firewall security; plan and configure antivirus settings; plan and configure certificate management
Plan and configure farm-level security
Plan rights management; plan and configure delegated farm administration; plan and configure delegated service application administration; plan and configure managed accounts; plan and configure blocked file types; plan and configure web part security

Install and configure SharePoint farms
Create and configure enterprise search
Plan and configure search topology; plan and configure result sources; plan and configure crawl schedules; plan and configure crawl rules; plan and configure crawl performance
Create and configure Managed Metadata Service application (MMS)
Configure managed service application proxy settings; configure content type hub settings; configure sharing term sets; plan and configure content type propagation schedule; configure custom properties; configure term store permission
Create and configure User Profile Service application (UPA)
Configure UPA application; setup My Sites and My Site hosts; configure social permissions; plan and configure sync connections; configure profile properties; configure audiences

Create and configure web applications and site collections
Provision and configure web applications
Create managed paths; configure HTTP throttling; configure List throttling; configure Alternate Access Mappings (AAM); configure authentication provider; configure SharePoint Designer settings
Manage search
Manage result sources; manage query rules; manage display templates; manage Search Engine Optimization (SEO) settings; manage result types; manage search schema
Manage taxonomy
Manage site collection term set access; manage term set navigation; manage topic catalog pages; configure custom properties; configure search refinement; configure list refinement

Maintain core SharePoint environment
Troubleshoot SharePoint environment
Establish baseline performance; perform client-side tracing; perform server-side tracing; analyze usage data; enable developer dashboard; analyze diagnostic logs

Plan business continuity management
Plan for SQL high availability and disaster recovery
Plan for SQL Server clustering; plan for SQL Server Always-On; plan for SQL Server Log Shipping; plan for SQL Server mirroring; plan for storage redundancy; plan for login replication

Plan SharePoint environment
Plan and configure search workload
Plan and configure search result relevancy; plan and configure index freshness; plan and configure result sources; plan and configure end-user experience; plan and configure search schema; analyze search analytics reports; plan and configure result throttling
Plan ECM workload
Plan and configure E-Discovery; plan and configure document routing; configure co-authoring; plan and configure record disposition and retention; plan large document repositories; plan and configure software boundaries

Upgrade and migrate SharePoint environment
Upgrade site collection
Perform health check; analyze and resolve health check results; plan and configure available site collection modes; plan and configure site collection upgrade availability; plan and configure EVAL mode; plan and configure site collection upgrade throttling

Create and configure service applications
Create and configure App Management
Create and configure App Store; create and configure subscriptions; configure marketplace connections; configure DNS entries; configure wildcard certificates
Configure service application federation
Plan services to federate; perform certificate exchange; manage trusts; manage service application permissions; publish service applications; consume service applications

Manage SharePoint solutions, BI, and systems integration
Plan and configure BI infrastructure
Plan and configure performance point; plan and configure reporting services; plan and configure PowerPivot; plan and configure Excel Services; plan and configure Power View; plan and configure BI security
Question No : 1 - (Topic 1)
You need to implement corporate sizing and performance guidelines for general usage scenarios.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A. For the Remote BLOB Storage (RBS) storage subsystem on network attached storage
(NAS), limit the maximum time-to-first-byte (TTFB) of any response from the NAS to 100 milliseconds.

B. Limit the maximum size of each content database to 4 TB.

C. For the Remote BLOB Storage (RBS) storage subsystem on network attached storage
(NAS), limit the maximum time-to-first-byte (TTFB) of any response from the NAS to 20 milliseconds.

D. Limit the number of documents in each document library to 20 million.

E. Limit the number of documents in each content database to 10 million.

F. Limit the maximum size of each content database to 200 GB.

Answer: C,E,F


Question No : 2 - (Topic 1)
You need to ensure that service applications meet the technical requirements by using the least amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?

A. Use the Farm Configuration Wizard to add service applications.
B. Use Windows PowerShell to configure service applications.
C. Use the SharePoint Products Configuration Wizard to complete the server configuration.
D. In Central Administration, manually create each service application.

Answer: B

Question No : 3 - (Topic 1)
You need to ensure that content authors can publish the specified files.
What should you do?

A. Create multiple authoring site collections. Create a site that contains lists, document
libraries, and a Pages library. Create an asset library in a new site collection, and enable
anonymous access to the library on the publishing web application.

B. Create multiple authoring site collections. Create a site that contains lists, document
libraries, and a Pages library. Create an asset library in the authoring site collection, and
enable anonymous access to the library on the authoring web application.

C. Create one authoring site collection. Create a site that contains multiple lists, document
libraries, and Pages libraries. Create an asset library in a new site collection, and enable
anonymous access to the library on the publishing web application.

D. Create multiple authoring site collections. Create a site that contains multiple lists,
document libraries, and Pages libraries. Create an asset library in a new site collection, and
enable anonymous access to the library on the publishing web application.

Answer: B

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Why a 7-inch Surface tablet would be a mistake for Microsoft

Rumors have begun circulating that Microsoft is working on a 7-inch version of its Surface tablet. I'm not convinced the company should even bother.

For the past couple of weeks, the web has been buzzing with rumors and speculation that Microsoft is working on a 7-inch version of its Surface Tablet. There has been no official word from Microsoft, of course, but if you look at current market trends, introducing a smaller tablet would seem to make a lot of sense. The popularity of the iPad Mini, Kindle Fire and Google’s Nexus 7 are clear indicators that consumers are interested in smaller tablets, and Microsoft surely wants a piece of the action.

Microsoft is in somewhat of a unique situation, however. Not only does the company already have a slew of hardware partners it probably shouldn’t anger any further, but it technically has two mobile operating systems to choose from, Windows RT and Windows 8. Although Windows RT and Windows 8 look similar, the former lacks compatibility with legacy x86 Windows applications, while the latter has somewhat steeper hardware requirements to run smoothly. And therein lies the rub.

A 7-inch Surface Tablet would be a tougher sell than the original.
If history is any indicator, and Microsoft is actually working on its own branded 7-inch tablet, it will most likely run Windows RT. Unfortunately, Windows RT hasn’t exactly been the darling of consumers or the tech community. In fact, many experts are calling for Microsoft to just kill off RT altogether and focus solely on Windows 8 for tablets. With Intel’s current x86-compatible SoCs already offering better performance and similar battery life than the ARM-based alternatives for Windows RT, it doesn’t make a whole lot of sense to continue expending resources on Windows RT. And if rumors hold true, Intel’s upcoming Bay Trail-based SoCs should only push RT further into oblivion.

The alternative is to produce a Windows 8-based, x86-compatible, 7-inch tablet. But I can already hear the tech press complaining now. They’ll say things like “Desktop mode is useless on a 7-inch tablet,” “You’ll be paying for features you won’t use,” and “There aren’t enough Windows 8 apps,” and so on. Whether everyone feels the same way or not, information and reviews full of caveats about a product don’t exactly instill consumer confidence and foster success.

Microsoft has taken such a beating lately that I’m of the opinion they shouldn’t bother with their own 7-inch tablet. Unless they hit an absolute home run on the hardware and market the device creatively alongside an enticing software promotion, there’s little chance the product will be well received. Microsoft should focus on bettering Windows 8 and its successors, and let its hardware partners introduce new tablet form factors.

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70-431 Q&A / Study Guide / Testing Engine / Videos

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QUESTION 1
Certkingdom has hired you as their Database administrator. You create a database on named
Development on ABC-DB01 that hosts an instance of SQL Server 2005 Enterprise Edition.
You perform weekly maintenance and conclude that the Development database growing at about
100 MB on a monthly basis. The network users started complaining about poor performance of
queries run against the database.
There is 2GB RAM installed on DB01 and the database consumes 1.6 GB of RAM.
How would you determine whether additional RAM should be acquired for ABC-DB01?

A. You should consider monitoring the SQL Server: Memory Manager – Target Server Memory
(KB) Page Splits/sec counter in System Monitor.
B. You should consider monitoring the SQL Server: Buffer Manager counter in System Monitor.
C. You should consider monitoring the System – Processor Queue counter in System Monitor.
D. You should consider monitoring the SQL Server: Access Methods – Page Splits/sec counter in System Monitor.

Answer: B

Explanation: The SQL Server: Buffer Manager object is utilized to view the information related to
bottlenecks.

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QUESTION 2
You create a database on ABC-DB01 that is running an instance of SQL Server 2005 Enterprise Edition.
Certkingdom recently suffered a power outage to the building which forces you to restart ABC-DB01
which now fails to start the SQL Server (MSSQLSERVER). Certkingdom wants you to troubleshoot
the service failure.
What must be done to determine the cause of the service start failure?

A. You should consider reviewing the Event Viewer logs listed below:
The Event Viewer Applications log.
The Event Viewer System logs.
Microsoft Notepad should be utilized to manually view the Microsoft SQL
Server\MSSQL.1\MSSQL\LOG\ErrorLog file.

B. You should consider reviewing the Event Viewer logs listed below :
The Event Viewer Windows logs.
The Event Viewer Setup logs.
The Event Viewer Application log.

C. You should consider reviewing the Event Viewer logs listed below :
The Event Viewer Forwarded Event logs.
The Event Viewer Hardware events.
The Event Viewer Security log.

D. You should consider reviewing the Event Viewer logs listed below :
The Event Viewer Setup Events logs.
The Event Viewer Windows logs.
The Event Viewer Applications and Services logs.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 3
Certkingdom has recently opened an office in Perth where you work as the database administrator.
The Certkingdom database infrastructure runs on computers utilizing SQL Server 2005 Enterprise
Edition. You create a Import database with a backup schedule configured in the table below:



The Imports database contains a table named incoming which was updated a week ago. During
the course of the day A network user informs you that a table has been dropped from the Imports
table at 16:10. Certkingdom wants the incoming table restored to the Imports database.
What must be done to restore the table using minimal effort and ensuring data loss is kept to a minimum?

A. You should consider restoring the database from the recent deferential backup.
B. You should consider having the differential of Monday and snapshot backup from Tuesday restored.
C. You should consider deletion of all differential and database snapshots except the recent backup.
D. You should consider having the database table recovered from the recent database snapshot.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 4
Certkingdom hired you as the network database administrators. You create a database named
Customers on ABC-DB01 running an instance of SQL Server 2005 Enterprise Edition.
A custom application is used to access and query the database. The users recently reported that
the custom application experiences deadlock conditions constantly.
How would you determine which Server session ID is related to the deadlocks?
What must be done to observer the SQL Server session ID involved with the deadlock scenario?

A. You should consider monitoring the SQL Server Profiler to monitor Error and Warning events.
B. You should consider monitoring the SQL Server Profiler to monitor Lock Deadlock Chain events.
C. You should consider monitoring the SQL Server Profiler to monitor Objects.
D. You should consider monitoring the SQL Server Profiler to monitor performance.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 5
You are the system administer of a SQL Server 2005 Enterprise Edition server named DB01 that
uses Windows Authentication mode. Certkingdom uses a custom developed application for running
queries against the database on DB01. Users complain that the custom application stops
responding. Yu notice that the CPU utilization at 100% capacity.
You then try to connect to DB01 by utilizing the SQL Server Management Studio but DB01 still
does not respond. Certkingdom wants you to connect to ABC-DB01 to determine the problem.
What should be done to successfully determine the problem?

A. You should consider utilizing the osql –L command from the command prompt.
B. You should consider utilizing the sqlcmd –A command from the command prompt.
You could additionally use SQL Server Management Studio to access Database Engine Query for
connecting to DB01 with the SQL Server Authentication mode.
C. You should consider utilizing the osql –E command from the command prompt.
D. You should consider utilizing the sqlcmd –N command from the command prompt.
E. You should consider utilizing the sqlcmd –R command from the command prompt.

Answer: B

Explanation: The sqlcmd –A command is utilized to ensure that a dedicated administrative connection is utilized.

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BlackBerry details extensive security protection in BlackBerry 10 OS

BlackBerry 10 OS is distinct from previous BlackBerry OS in that it can separate personal from corporate apps

The recent release of the BlackBerry 10 operating system sets the stage for a security evolution as well, according to Alex Manea, manager of security services at BlackBerry.

For one thing, the BlackBerry 10 OS is distinct from any previous BlackBerry OS in that it provides a way to separate out personal applications from corporate-designated ones by using a capability built directly into the OS called Balance. Manea says this "partitions the phone into two spaces, a workspace 100% controlled by IT, which can delete it without interfering in the personal side" and represents a way that businesses can support the bring-your-own-device (BYOD) trend by allowing employees their personal space on BlackBerry, too.

And although this BlackBerry Balance dual-partition capability for BYOD is not available for Google Android or Apple iOS devices, BlackBerry management can support these non-BlackBerry devices, says Manea, adding it involves adding a specialized app to iOS and Android devices to do that. Through use of the server-based BlackBerry Device Service software for BlackBerry 10, businesses can manage Android and iOS devices as well, though not Microsoft Windows Mobile, he says. Management capabilities include features such as lock, track and wipe.

BlackBerry is also working on what's known as a "containerization" type of technology for applications that could also be used for iOS and Android that would allow IT managers to place something akin to a container wrap around an app based on IT-based policy decisions.

BlackBerry 10 is also supporting data at rest and in transit through encryption, with the ability to swap out encryption algorithms.

But in addition to new features like Balance, the advent of the BlackBerry 10 OS has set the stage at BlackBerry to evolve the basic security strategy related to present and future smartphones and tablets. For example, BlackBerry recently established a partnership with security firm Trend Micro to assist in vetting apps against malware thorough the cloud-based Trend Micro Mobile Application Reputation Service. And in another partnership with Germany-based Secusmart GmbH, BlackBerry is creating a specialized encrypted mobile voice capability for BlackBerry that would be used by the German government there.

These kinds of projects are widening the perspective on what BlackBerry might undertake in the future as pertains to the BlackBerry 10 OS as a platform, including potentially coming up with a set of security APIs that third-party vendors could build to, such as the kind of anti-malware hooks which they don't have today. There has historically been very little malware aimed at BlackBerry because of its core design being highly virus-resistant, but it is growing.

Manea says as BlackBerry considers what it might undertake in terms of growing its security capabilities with BlackBerry 10, it's evident that the firm is more open than ever before to the idea of exploring projects, partnerships and possibilities.

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Microsoft's Outlook.com comes out of preview phase

Microsoft's Outlook.com comes out of preview phase
Hotmail users will be upgraded to the new email service by summer

Microsoft has moved its email service Outlook.com out of the preview phase, and plans a marketing campaign to boost its adoption worldwide.

The service, which claims 60 million active users since the preview was released last July, will soon start to upgrade Hotmail users to the new service, David Law, director of product management at Outlook.com, wrote in a blog post on Monday.

At launch of the preview, Microsoft said Outlook.com would eventually replace Hotmail. The migration of Hotmail users, which will be completed by summer, will be seamless, and users' @hotmail.com email address, password, messages, folders, contacts, rules, vacation replies, and other features will stay the same, with no disruption in service, Law wrote. He did not specify a date when the transition would be complete. Users won't have to switch to an @outlook.com address if they prefer not to, he added.

Microsoft is also launching a large-scale marketing campaign to promote the service worldwide, stating that it is confident that Outlook.com is ready to scale to a billion people.

"A number of people have expressed appreciation that Outlook.com replaces advertising with the latest updates from Facebook or Twitter when they're reading email from one of their contacts," Law wrote. On an average, people saw 60% fewer ads when using Outlook.com because they now get much more relevant updates from their friends, he added.

Microsoft launched recently a campaign against Gmail in the U.S., targeting Google's alleged practice of going through the contents of all Gmail messages to sell and target advertisements. The "Don't Get Scroogled by Gmail" campaign on Microsoft's Scroogled.com promotes Outlook.com as an alternative to Gmail. Microsoft asked users to sign a petition to stop Google from going through personal email to sell ads.

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IT security vendor Verdasys brings DLP to the cloud

IT security vendor Verdasys brings DLP to the cloud
Data loss prevention technology flags suspicious activity from afar

Security vendor Verdasys says it's ready to bring data loss prevention (DLP) to the cloud.

DLP systems typically require on-premises systems that monitor data use within a network and flag suspicious activity. With Verdasys' new cloud-based offering, the analysis of data flow is done off-site, without any sensitive information ever leaving the customer's site.

Verdasys is hoping the traditional advantages of cloud computing -- removing the need to buy hardware and off-loading the management of the system -- could make it an attractive option for midsize organizations looking to implement a DLP program. DLP has been somewhat slow to take off overall.

[ BACKGROUND: Next up for DLP: The cloud?

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DLP systems are meant to ensure that sensitive information -- which is defined by the customer -- does not leave a company's network. If an employee attempts to download the company's IP and trade secrets on to a personal USB drive, a DLP system should be able to catch that and prevent the transfer.

Usually this has required an on-site footprint, including monitoring software, a centralized system for collecting the data traffic information and an on-site representative to analyze it. By using the cloud, Verdasys brings almost all those functions off-site, into its private cloud.

But Verdasys does not actually send any of the data it is analyzing up into its private cloud -- which is hosted by Rackspace's managed services division. Instead, Verdasys sensors that are positioned throughout the customer's network send encrypted, hashed metadata about the data traffic for analysis. This is a key, Verdasys officials say, for allowing the system to be able to monitor sensitive data without it having to leave the customer's network. "Metadata is descriptive language that defines the data, but does not contain it," says Bill Munroe, VP of marketing.

The company's Digital Guardian software, which powers the DLP system, analyzes the traffic flow and creates alerts for any suspicious activity. The system allows customers to see which employees have moved which files where, as well as provide encryption and hashing services to protect the data.

Verdasys' offering is the latest in what Forrester analyst Ed Ferrara says is a move by security vendors to push services to the cloud. "There's a huge amount of pressure on security organizations to look at the cloud seriously," he says.

DLP in the cloud can come with its concerns, though. Chief among them is the amount of information that must be sent to analyze. Even if only cached metadata is being sent to the cloud for analysis, that can still add up to be a lot of traffic for midsize to large organizations.

A variety of other security vendors -- including Trend Micro, McAfee, RSA, Symantec and CA -- are looking into cloud-based offerings, but Verdasys and BEW Global appear to be furthest along in their offerings, which are already on the market. Verdasys' system is priced between $6 and $14 per user per month, depending on the level of service.

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Tech salaries jump 5.3%, bonuses flat

Tech and engineering pros reported the largest salary jump in more than a decade, according to career site Dice

Average salaries for tech pros climbed 5.3% to $85,619 last year, up from $81,327 in 2011. It's the largest salary jump in more than a decade, according to career site Dice, which specializes in jobs for tech and engineering professionals.

Entry level talent (two years or less experience) waited three years to see an increase in average annual pay -- and the market made up for the stagnancy with an 8% year-over-year increase to $46,315. At the other end of the spectrum, average salaries for tech professionals with at least 15 years of experience topped six-figures for the first time, growing 4% to $103,012.

 

2013 JOB WATCH: Top 11 metro areas for tech jobs

"Employers are recognizing and adjusting to the reality of a tight market," said Scot Melland, CEO of Dice Holdings, in a statement. "The fact is you either pay to recruit or pay to retain and these days, at least for technology teams, companies are doing both."

Tech bonuses were slightly more frequent -- 33% of respondents got one in 2012 compared to 32% in 2011 -- but slightly less lucrative at an average of $8,636 (down from $8,769). [Related story: "Outlook for IT bonus pay murky"]
tech salaries

"In the early stages of the recovery, companies were staying flexible by using performance pay to reward their top performers," Melland said. "Now, companies are writing the checks that will stick. With a 3.8% tech unemployment rate, no one wants to lose talent."

By location, Pittsburgh tech pros saw the largest salary increase, up 18% year/year to $76,207. Six other cities also reported double-digit growth in salaries -- which is the most ever registered by the Dice Salary Survey.

San Diego (+13% to $97,328)
St. Louis (+13% to $81,245)
Phoenix (+12% to $83,607)
Cleveland (+11% to $75,773
Orlando (+10% to $81,583)
Milwaukee (+10% to $81,670)

Silicon Valley remains the only market where tech professionals average six-figure salaries ($101,278).

Across the U.S., big data skills are in demand, as evidenced by $100,000+ salaries for tech pros who use Hadoop, NoSQL and MongoDB. By comparison, average salaries associated with cloud and virtualization are just under $90,000 and mobile salaries are closer to $80,000, Dice reports.

"We've heard it's a fad, heard it's hyped and heard it's fleeting, yet it's clear that data professionals are in demand and well paid," said Alice Hill, managing director of Dice.com. "Tech professionals who analyze large data streams and strategically impact the overall business goals of a firm have an opportunity to write their own ticket. The message to employers? If you have a talented data team, hold on tight or learn the consequences of a lift-out."

Looking ahead to the current year, 64% of tech professionals are confident they could find a favorable new job in 2013.

Dice surveyed 15,049 employed tech professionals between Sept. 24 and Nov. 16, 2012, for its annual Salary Survey.

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